A charitable interpreter who has read some medieval philosophy may be able to see how scholastics use this claim and identify certain inferences from this claim as being valid and others not. But it'd be nice if we had a more precise characterization of what it means to say God is 'pure actuality', so that we can see if all that Aquinas says follows actually does follow from this claim. Moreover, once we have a precise characterization of what Aquinas is even asserting, we can begin to more clearly assess the plausibility of the claim itself and whether Aquinas has established it. I propose the following definition:
- x is pure actuality if and only if for all (intrinsic) P, if x is P then x is actually P.
For completeness and wider scope of application, I also propose the following definitions of a thing's being 'composed of' or 'having' actuality and potentiality:
- x is composed of potentiality if and only if for some (intrinsic) P, x is P and x is potentially P
- x is composed of actuality if and only if for some (intrinsic) P, x is P and x is actually P.